Infernal Ramblings
A Malaysian Perspective on Politics, Society and Economics

Absolute vs Comparative Advantage

Written by johnleemk on 9:03:42 am Jan 16, 2007.
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In any discussion of international economics, you are bound to encounter the principle of comparative advantage. Comparative advantage has been the underpinning of international economics since it was first expounded on by David Ricardo in 1817. Despite its importance, it is surprisingly not commonly known outside the circle of those educated in economics. This makes it especially difficult to evaluate the benefits of free trade - I have attempted to do this in the past without delving in depth into this topic (see Misunderstanding the Free Market and On Economic Freedom), but since it seems to me that I will refer to this principle in the future, a somewhat detailed explanation is in order.

If you have the time, the Wikipedia article I linked to in the first paragraph should be sufficient and quite interesting. If you do not, however, then I shall try to sum up comparative advantage as concisely as possible. I believe the principle of comparative advantage can be stated as:

As long as the ratio of the prices of two or more goods relative to each other differ, it is beneficial for a country to engage in trade.

To anyone who has studied international economics, this undoubtedly seems like a very simplistic definition. However, it is the best that I can think of.

Now, the proof of the principle: let us say Malaysia produces petroleum and computers. The United States also produces petroleum and computers. However, the United States can produce more computers than petroleum, while Malaysia can produce more petroleum than computers. As a result, the Malaysian cost of mining petroleum is $1 per barrel and the price of building computers is $10 per CPU (shall we say), while in the US, the price of petroleum is $10 per barrel and the price of a CPU is $1. Each country has $1000 to allocate to its economy. Malaysia can produce 1000 barrels of petroleum or 100 computers, while the US can produce 100 barrels or 1000 computers.

To recap, both Malaysia and the US combined can produce $1000 worth of petroleum and $1000 worth of CPUs, $2000 worth of petroleum, or $2000 worth of computers. In addition, they can also produce any combination of goods that fits the parameters we have just defined. Malaysia, for example, could produce one CPU and 990 barrels of petroleum. (Recall, the prices represent the allocation of resources within the economy to the production of each good.)

Now, should Malaysia and the US try to be self-sufficient, producing 500 barrels of petroleum and 50 CPUs (Malaysia) and 50 barrels of petroleum and 500 CPUs (the US)? According to the principle of comparative advantage, no. Trade is beneficial to both sides. If the US and Malaysia each specialise in one good, then they will have 1000 barrels of petroleum and 1000 computers. Then, each country can have 500 barrels of petroleum and 500 computers - or any other possible combination of these goods that they desire, as long as it is less than 1000 of each.

Now, this seems pretty simply. It's a no-brainer, right? But what if the US kicked Malaysia's ass in both petroleum mining and CPU production? What if they could produce petroleum at $0.01 per barrel and CPUs at $1 per computer, while Malaysia stagnated and did not innovate enough to lower its costs? Would trade still benefit both countries?

Under absolute advantage, which is the typical principle used by non-economists to evaluate the benefits of trade, the answer is no. After all, it seems to be common sense that Malaysia should struggle along by itself while the US reaps the benefits of its innovation. But under comparative advantage, we reach a different conclusion: trade must continue.

The reason is simple. The US can now produce 100,000 barrels of petroleum or 1000 CPUs, while Malaysia remains stuck at 1000 barrels and 100 CPUs. If they go it alone and the US produces 50,000 barrels and 500 CPUs, while Malaysia makes 500 barrels and 50 CPUs, the combined output of both countries will be 50,500 barrels and 550 CPUs. If Malaysia specialises and trades some of its CPUs with the US for petroleum, however, then the same figures will be 50,000 barrels and 500 CPUs (the US) and 0 barrels and 100 CPUs (Malaysia). Combined output of oil is slightly lower, but it has been compensated for by the increase in CPU output. Malaysia can now take 50 of its CPUs (worth $50 in the US) and trade them to the US for $50 (US prices again) worth of oil, or 5000 barrels worth of oil. End result: Malaysia has the same number of CPUs it started with under the no-trade scenario, but now has 4500 more barrels of oil. The US has 5000 barrels less than it started with, but it has 50 CPUs, so it has lost nothing.

You can play this scenario out with different parameters, but no matter what, comparative advantage holds as true as 1 + 1 = 2. Even if the terms of the trade deal are less advantageous to Malaysia, it remains beneficial for Malaysia to trade with the US. The worst case scenario under comparative advantage is that only one party gains while the other stays the same (in the scenario above it is the US that ends up with the same value of goods it originally had), and this is an extreme. Often, you find that both parties will benefit from some trade arrangement because they can produce more combined than by attempting to be self-sufficient.

If this has you befuddled, you can try working it out on pen and paper. But even if you don't get it, take heart. Nobel Prize-winning economist Paul Samuelson has remarked that the principle of comparative advantage is one of the most difficult to grasp:

That it is logically true need not be argued before a mathematician; that it is not trivial is attested by the thousands of important and intelligent men who have never been able to grasp the doctrine for themselves or to believe it after it was explained to them.

Nevertheless, it is a mathematical surety that the principle of comparative advantage holds. Unless the countries involved in the transaction are perfectly homogenous (same costs of production, same amount of resources, etc.), it is always better for countries to trade than to go it alone.


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Related comments from forum thread "Medicinal Monopolies":
johnleemk
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Posted at 6:37:34 am Nov 2, 2005
One of the major problems I see facing modern medicine is the appropriate pricing of medicines. You see, it costs a lot to develop modern drugs - you not only have to pay for researching and marketing it, but also for test trials, etc. Furthermore, it also involves a lot of investment in time on the part of medical companies - a lot of time, on the scale of decades, even. If a drug doesn't pan out by say, not getting approval from the US Food and Drugs Administration, they may have wasted millions of dollars on nothing. As a result, medicinal companies need to charge higher and higher prices to recoup their costs.

However, to be able to charge such high prices, the demand for the drug must not be very elastic (the customers must not be turned off by a huge rise in the price of the drug). And in a market where other drug companies can be selling similar medicines, demand tends to be rather, well, elastic. This makes it financially unfeasible to develop drugs, especially complicated ones like those for AIDS or cancer. After all, what's the point when your competitor will be selling the same drug as yours under a different name within a few months? You might call this market failure, but the market has done nothing wrong; it's just impossible to profit from developing complex drugs.

Therefore, the governments of the world have stepped in to encourage drug development by awarding 20-year patents to drug discoverers. For 20 years, the company that discovered the drug will be the only one in control of who gets the drug - it's a monopoly. Now, this might be a good thing, except for the fact that once again, you've got the nasty market to contend with - the prices are high, remember? With diseases that affect mainly the poor, such as AIDS, this can cost millions of lives for the sake of a few dollars.

Sure, you could argue that the government could step in, but how? If it forces companies to lower their prices, there will no longer exist any incentive to develop new drugs. If the government itself subsidises drugs, there will be an incredible cost to taxpayers that many would find unconscionable. (Hey, remember the prices were artificially jacked up by the gifting of a monopoly to the drug manufacturers?) Arguably, socialism has come full circle - the interference in the market has come back to bite socialists in the ass. (Even though the measure is pro-business, remember it interferes with the workings of a free market.)

Some would argue that the monopoly is a natural monopoly, and that we should step aside and allow the free market to work. Such is the economic orthodoxy, but it's easy to say this to an audience of educated (and probably not dieing or starving) professionals. It's another thing to say this to the face of those who will face a struggle with cancer or AIDS for every day of the rest of their lives. A humane but practical solution has to be found.

Of course, there are also the even more extremist who would question that statement. After all, worshipping the omnipotent, omniscient free market is the "in" thing of economics nowadays. However, anyone who has ever bothered to read and comprehend an undergraduate economics textbook knows such a "free market is always right" stance to not only be wrong but downright dangerous. The free market is a means to an end, not an end in itself.

Economics teaches that the market exists only to produce and allocate goods and services. Once you have understood this, all the romance and mysticism of the free market are gone. But if you don't stop there and dig further into your undergraduate textbook, you'll find that the market isn't even always right when it comes to the distribution of goods and services - indeed, it can be horribly, horribly wrong. That's why the term "market failure" has been coined. The market fails when it allows a monopoly or oligopoly to erect barriers to entry, when it allows imperfect information, or when it allows externalisation of costs. The market is an imperfect tool - a good one, mind you, but nevertheless, rough around the edges.

Thus, we return to the original question - how do we provide drugs at an affordable cost without stifling the incentive to research and manufacture such drugs? We've struck subsidies and the outright removal of the patent system without replacing it off our list, so what's next? One common solution is to lower the length of the patents so that the drug recipe will be released into the hands of other companies sooner. This is just tinkering with the system, and offers no real solution. Furthermore, by lowering the length of the patent, the incentive to research costly drugs will also dissipate somewhat.

So we have to cross that one off our list. What's next? Well, here's a thought - an impractical one, but still a thought - drug bounties. Simply, governments would award the first one to come up with a drug that cures AIDS/cancer/whatever a certain amount of money, commensurate with the importance of the drug. This of course has its drawbacks - to be effective, the taxpayers will again have to open their wallets, and the price may be difficult to optimise (how do you know whether you're paying too much or too little for the cure for cancer?).

So, as you can probably tell by now, there is no real answer. There's no solution - at least, one isn't anywhere in sight in the near future. Still, it's quite the challenge, and you mark my words - the man who discovers how to optimise the production and distribution of drugs will win the Nobel Prize in economics. It's quite simple - in this case, there has been no market failure. So now we just have to figure out how to stimulate costly drug production without the help of the market. Well, it's not that simple. But you get my point.
Last five replies (5 comments not shown):
jasoneight
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Posts: 3
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Posted at 12:43:23 pm Apr 10, 2007
The article in the Sun mentioned that farmers in Malaysia will suffer if the MUFTA is signed but there are no details provided.

I remember some NGOs and other individual parties claimed in the press that our local farmers would be affected by the FTA, in that there will be an influx of rice from the US in the local market after the FTA and consequently affect local farmers.

But in fact, this is not the case.

In reality, rice production in Malaysia is not enough and we have to import 30 percent of our rice. This comes mainly from Vietnam which accounts for 420,000 tonnes or RM415 million worth of our rice import and from Thailand which accounts for some 300,00 tonnes of rice imports. This compares with only an import of 385 tonnes of rice from the US worth RM1.36 million.

If at all, then Malaysian rice is in fact competing with the rice from Vietnam and Thailand as the grade is the same, and not with that from the US, which is of a different grade and caters mainly to the Japanese and Koreans in the country.

Malaysian local white rice costs about RM2.20 per kilo while the rice from the US costs about RM10.25 per kilo. It is therefore clear that the rice from the US cannot compete with the local rice based on simple pricing and economics.


johnleemk
Infernally Rambling Thoughtless Mind
Head Administrator
Posts: 953
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Posted at 1:23:48 pm Apr 10, 2007
Hm...nice research there, but your comments suspiciously resemble those of some government officials who have commented about the FTA, right down to the wording. :p
jasoneight
Member
Posts: 3
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Posted at 1:34:34 pm Apr 11, 2007
The facts speak for themselves - plain and simple - not like those who mouth other sweeping, general and emotional statements.

These facts don't get reported in full often enough as they are not sensational and do not help sell papers.It is more dramatic to say that FTA destroy lives and take away our sovereignty.

Too often we forget how the Hong Kong economy was built.
zedtransf0rm
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Posted at 10:21:04 pm Oct 26, 2008
The principle of comparative advantage has been seriously challenged recently. David Ricardo's original assumption was that international capital movement was unlikely, and was restrained in the same way that land and labour, the other factors of production, were. See sections 7.18 and 7.19 of his book.

However, this is no longer the case, and it is questionable whether comparative advantage exists in today's climate of unrestrained movement of capital
zedtransf0rm
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Posted at 10:26:42 pm Oct 26, 2008
Free Trade Agreements are not the same thing as the International Trade envisaged by Ricardo. For example, it can be argued that the maintenance of tariffs against the import of grain into the USA affects the price of exported commodities.

The FTA is really a doctrine, not an economic actuallity.

There were massive arguments raised against Intellectual Property Rights in the development of Free Trade Theory during the 1800's, and the assertions were supported by theory. However, the emerging monopolists soon removed such discussion from the theory.

We don't see much theory, unless supported by a regime of political ideology. Ecelecticism is not logical


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